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I have a salary cap question. Do our rules for releasing players (75/50/25%) cover the gross or net amount of the contract? By net, I mean if another team is paying for some of the contract. See the example of the Mets/Yanks trade.
judging by all other past moves it would be the total. So if the nats were to drop arod, the percentages would be of 27.5m
What would happen if the Nats dropped him the last day of the season? The cap hits would be 2011 21m2012 14m2013 7mThe Mets are supposed to be covering 20m per season through 2014? Would that obligation just disappear if the Nats released A-Rod? I'm not saying this is even remotely likely. I just want us to be clear on the salary cap ramifications on these kind of long-term obligations.
The amount owed still has to be covered. Dice K was released by me. He is owed $$$ this year and next, the Sawx are covering it. If the Yanks pay 20 mil towards Aroid and he is dropped by the Nats, any moneys owed by the Nats would take effect after the 20 mil the Mets are paying. Any number under 20 mil, the savings goes to the Mets.
The Mets are no longer paying ARod, they're paying the Nats - regardless of what happens between the Nats and ARod, the cash owed by the Mets to the Nats does not change. At least that's my interpretation...
I thought we abolished cash only exchanges last year and said that cash must follow the player. The only real life example I can think of also involves A-Rod. When A-Rod opted out of the last 3 years of his Texas contract, the Rangers saved 21m over those 3 years. In any case, the rules should state whether the cap hits are before or after cash that follows the player in a trade like this one.